r/canadaguns • u/Spread-Hour • Apr 04 '26
Application / Regulation advice Policy question regarding 'antique' status on firearms.
Why do antique models of firearms (m1861 springfield rifle and colt m1861 navy for example) made before 1898 qualify as 'antique', while the exact same models produced in 1899 or later qualify as non restricted and restricted firearms? Sorry if this sounds dumb, but I dont understand the logic here. I would understand if they weren't muzzleloaders, which load, shoot, and preform nearly the same as every other type (flint/wheel/match/serpentine-lock), but unlike the rest, cant be antique while being repros. why?
(P.S this is a repost of my post from r/canadianlaw)
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u/16gaugeguy16 Apr 04 '26 edited Apr 04 '26
Unpopular opinion:
People act like it is arbitrary, and it's not. Does it make entire sense? No. But it was an attempt to allow people to buy and sell historical firearms while introducing stricter laws around handguns.
Around 1898-1900, there were pretty huge improvements in firearms technology with handguns. So the line got drawn somewhere. They also excluded common calibers (45 colt, 44-40, etc) as they were meant to be historically niche/collectible and not guns that anyone could get ammo for to shoot. That's why almost everyone has to reload for the handguns that are antique now.
If they allowed modern cap and ball revolvers to be sold as antiques, there would be a proliferation of them being used by target shooters, hunters, and unfortunately maybe people who shouldn't have access to a handgun rather than mostly by the collectors market